Here is a question for all the lawyers out there....
If Donald Trump was to get Congress to pass a ban on American muslims, that ban would fit the definition of a Bill of Attainder; a direct violation of the U.S. Constitution. However, if Donald Trump was to get Congress to pass a ban on foreign muslims, would that ban fit the definition of a Bill of Attainder? To what extent do Constitutional protections given to Americans apply to foreigners?
apparently some confusion because I didnt include this in the original post.
Donald Trump's action was done by executive order, making the current action impossible to be considered a Bill of Attainder.